Here's an example.
Would this be a no trade?
This kind of thing happens a lot.
Would this be a no trade?
This kind of thing happens a lot.
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DislikedPrice has re-touched 7EMA and gone below 90EMA!http://www.forexfactory.com/images/icons/icon12.gif
If you mean 7EMA and 15EMA also cross 90EMA besides the price, then its a different rule.Ignored
DislikedHere's an example.
Would this be a no trade?
This kind of thing happens a lot.Ignored
Dislikedi thought that candle after 7EMA cross 90EMA, was a re-test.
Could have been 7EMA bending down to touch the candle.
But how price retesting EMA can happen without EMA also bending ?http://www.forexfactory.com/images/icons/icon10.gifIgnored
DislikedThe highs of the bars barely touch the EMA. Had price been moving toward the EMA, the EMA would have been rising above it and staying above price.Ignored
DislikedThanks billbss. Then it should be current price to re-touch ema to be a valid condition.Ignored
Dislikedbillbss let's say that u choose the best price to enter
u may not wait for the retest but you will put a 100 stoploss
u should be fleixableIgnored
DislikedIs that a rule modification?
1. Wait for a retest of the 7EMA
OR
2. Use a 100 pip SLIgnored