This has probably been asked many times and I've looked around the forum but can't find an answer...
My question is, if for example I buy 1 lot GBP/JPY and then later place a hedge trade (sell 1 lot GBP/JPY), how are the swap costs calculated?
Would you have positive swap on one trade and negative swap on the other? And if so, would these costs cancel each other out, or is one cost always higher than the other?
Thanks!
My question is, if for example I buy 1 lot GBP/JPY and then later place a hedge trade (sell 1 lot GBP/JPY), how are the swap costs calculated?
Would you have positive swap on one trade and negative swap on the other? And if so, would these costs cancel each other out, or is one cost always higher than the other?
Thanks!