Correlation of cross pairs

I am going to assume that I am using the correct terminology by calling these cross pairs.

I don't understand the relationship between 3 different, yet related, pairs.

For example. GBP/USD USD/CHF GBP/CHF. If the market is moving so that the dollar is strong, people will be selling GBP/USD and buying USD/CHF, but how does that affect GBP/CHF? Both are being sold in relation to the dollar, but how do they react to each other?

No one can explain this? Or point me in a good directoin?

http://www.mataf.net/en/analysis-correlation.htm use this site to get some good correlation information. Now, your example can be explained like this:

It is strictly based on percentage. Pips do not make any difference. If the CHF holds up better against the well moving USD, then in most circumstance it will move up against the GBP. Thus the gbp/chf will move in the short direction.

The quick answer is a simple equation:

(GBP/USD)(USD/CHF)(CHF/GBP)=1

or

(GBP/USD)(USD/CHF)=(GBP/CHF)

Of course each exists in its own market so there can sometimes be a few pips delay on this equation...not enough that I've heard of people playing it, but still its there (arbitrage).

So in answer to your question, from a purely mathematical point of view, strong dollar moves don't have to reflect in (GBP/CHF) in any way...if the move in (GBP/USD) and (USD/CHF) move in ratios of current (GBP/CHF). If there is an imbalance in the move then (GBP/CHF) must move by the second equation to compensate.