Margin Closeout vs. StopLoss

Hi folks,
can somebody please explain this picture to me.

why is the loss different (499.95 vs. 577)? all parameters match.

and what does the current price have to do with the loss?

pic

On the left, loss amount is calculated with the closing rate, while Oanda seems to calculate the loss at the actual current rate.

account currency = EUR in the pic.... while you are trading eur / usd.

that is 2 trades per exposure. once from your eur's into usd, and then the actual trade of your new usd dollars x whatever lot size into eur's again. and then reverse when you close.

it's like asking why does my north pole dollars account receive different gains/losses at different times for the same pip amount on eur/usd. you first need usd to convert into eur, and the only way to do that is to convert your account currency into usd first, and then the trade opens at the lot size specified.

when you unwind your position you've gained some pips and got back some usd, but then that is again converted at the current usd / eur amount back into your eur's (note i said usd / eur, not eur / usd. it is the inverse).

or as the above put it, one seems to calc all this on the current rate, whereas the other calculates on what the rates would be... one of them is wrong if all of your inputs really do match. i'm guessing one of them doesn't bother to take into account that in this specific case it knows what the conversion rates are going to be for the account currency at the start and end of the trade.

either way, it's not a big deal, especially if you really do plan to trade at that size?

thanks for your replies!

when i set a buy order @1.18 (current price is 1.17) 10,000 EUR becomes 11,800 USD. with the USD i buy 10,000 EUR

at this point: (EUR +10,000) (USD -11,800)

next day the price is at 1.20.

the question is, with how many euro can i pay back the 11,800 USD, RIGHT?

in this case: 11,800 USD / (1.20 USD/EUR) = 9,833 EUR

so i made a profit of 10,000 - 9,833 = 166 EUR ... RIGHT?


but what has the current price (1.17) to do with this calculation?
i thought, when i set an order it has nothing to do with the current price..?

thanks!

i don't know if your math is right, and thinking about it briefly now i may have had myself a bit backwards with some of the conversions in my previous post.

but, what has been suggested is that one of the calculations you show in your picture MAY be using the current price for the conversion in and out of your account currency.

look at it this way... if you had to calculate an african account trading gbp/usd using limit orders, how would you do it? you can't because you don't know what the african rates will be at the unknown time that the gbp/usd reaches your limit order/s, so the best you can do is just use the CURRENT african rates as a stand-in best approximation.

so, if you can do the math you may find that one of the calculators is basing the account currency parts of the conversion on the current exchange rates, not taking into consideration that it does in fact know what the prices will be at the start and end of the transactions (you are trading a currency pair that just so happens to include your account currency... i.e. a special case).

or... i could be speaking rubbish and be totally wrong. doing the math should give a clue to where the difference is coming from.

ok, oanda really uses a best approximation which doesn't really matter when trading pairs that include your account currency.

here the math for EURUSD (oanda approximation):

EUR * current price = USDa
USDa / order price = units EUR
units EUR * closing price = USDb

(USDb - USDa) / closing price = gain/loss in EUR