The FXCM application page reads the following:
Non-U.S. residents will be directed to our U.K. entity in London, which is regulated by the FSA.
Residents of Australia and New Zealand will be directed to our Australia-based entity in Sydney, which is regulated by ASIC.
I asked FXCM why non-U.S. residents (I am temporarily living outside the U.S.) were being directed to the U.K. They said because it allowed the client continued use of stops, limits etc.
I asked if I still had the option of opening a U.S. account.
They explained all the benefits of a U.K. account and that they personally believed it to be preferable to open an account in the U.K.
I asked a couple more times if I could open an account in the U.S.
They said yes, but I would have to do it on paper and it would probably take 30 days.
I'm just guessing, but I think if a potential non-resident newbie, with at least $2000 wanted to open a U.S. account, the application would be processed as quickly as possible.
I like the U.K. for its segregated accounts and the use of stop/limit, but the directing of FXCM leaves me wondering.
Maybe FXCM is experiencing a huge increase in U.S. clients as brokers fold under new CFTC regulations; and they are just using their U.K. entity to ease the load.
Maybe the FSA is not as strict as the CFTC. I keep hearing the FSA is much bigger and older than the CFTC, but I haven't heard how the FSA's regulation of Forex compares to the CFTC.
This was a long intro for basically two questions:
1. Why would FXCM direct non-U.S. residents to the UK?
2. What are the specific regulations imposed by the FSA on Forex brokers.
(I've been to the FSA website, but it was an intellectually humbling experience)
Thanks for any insight
Non-U.S. residents will be directed to our U.K. entity in London, which is regulated by the FSA.
Residents of Australia and New Zealand will be directed to our Australia-based entity in Sydney, which is regulated by ASIC.
I asked FXCM why non-U.S. residents (I am temporarily living outside the U.S.) were being directed to the U.K. They said because it allowed the client continued use of stops, limits etc.
I asked if I still had the option of opening a U.S. account.
They explained all the benefits of a U.K. account and that they personally believed it to be preferable to open an account in the U.K.
I asked a couple more times if I could open an account in the U.S.
They said yes, but I would have to do it on paper and it would probably take 30 days.
I'm just guessing, but I think if a potential non-resident newbie, with at least $2000 wanted to open a U.S. account, the application would be processed as quickly as possible.
I like the U.K. for its segregated accounts and the use of stop/limit, but the directing of FXCM leaves me wondering.
Maybe FXCM is experiencing a huge increase in U.S. clients as brokers fold under new CFTC regulations; and they are just using their U.K. entity to ease the load.
Maybe the FSA is not as strict as the CFTC. I keep hearing the FSA is much bigger and older than the CFTC, but I haven't heard how the FSA's regulation of Forex compares to the CFTC.
This was a long intro for basically two questions:
1. Why would FXCM direct non-U.S. residents to the UK?
2. What are the specific regulations imposed by the FSA on Forex brokers.
(I've been to the FSA website, but it was an intellectually humbling experience)
Thanks for any insight