Hi,
I am a bit confused on this issue... I know it is something obvious that I am missing. But could someone explain for me why hedge funds or banks "run stops"?
for instance, I think it was the Monday Asian session where the EURUSD just kept on appreciating and I was reading that this was from a bank "running stops".. at least I think that is what I read.
anyhow, why do institutions do this? if they make the price go higher, shouldn't hitting people's stops give more resistance, making it harder (not easier) for the price to appreciate... someone please set me straight.
on the other hand, I have no problem seeing how it would be advantageous for a broker to spike stops and pocket the cash. I am just confused about how moving the price through stop levels benefits the institution that is doing it.
Does it make it easier for the bank to do a u-turn and short the pair after running it up?
I am a bit confused on this issue... I know it is something obvious that I am missing. But could someone explain for me why hedge funds or banks "run stops"?
for instance, I think it was the Monday Asian session where the EURUSD just kept on appreciating and I was reading that this was from a bank "running stops".. at least I think that is what I read.
anyhow, why do institutions do this? if they make the price go higher, shouldn't hitting people's stops give more resistance, making it harder (not easier) for the price to appreciate... someone please set me straight.
on the other hand, I have no problem seeing how it would be advantageous for a broker to spike stops and pocket the cash. I am just confused about how moving the price through stop levels benefits the institution that is doing it.
Does it make it easier for the bank to do a u-turn and short the pair after running it up?