Disliked{quote} Wouldn't that number be more close to 50.05 %? 0.1 % advantage would mean to have a probability of winning in 50 % + 0.1/2% = 50.05 %. Now you're just sampling from the population and thus (on average) the expectation for samples should be equal the mean of the population.Ignored

if this wasn’t the case we could easy just find over supply of losers within a series and bet it will even out before the 100 trades are up.

probabilties are some of the strangest behaving things and that is what makes them so fun/challenging to work with.

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