I think people needs to be wise in digging into this issue. Prime brokers finance up to a 2% margin and up to 50 times for brokers or funds. That's the prime brokerage model which then explains which institutional brokers like FIXI and etc only provide four different tiers for leverage and at max at 1:50. Now let's dig further, normal MiFID regulated brokers provide 1:100-500 leverage. Question is how do they actually finance it? Do they have such a market cap ? No not really refer to FXCM. So shouldn't ppl actually rethink this issue and find a easier way to define bucket shops or partial bucket shops through leverage? Simple but a debate we should try and face. If brokers say they finance it themselves we know it's bull.