Disliked{quote} When the 3 candle reversal occurs in H1, it looks for a FVG in that impulse in the lower timeframe, which should be filled later, so I understand that it would be in 1 regardless of 2. If I'm wrong, then please correct me ForexholyIgnored
So, in fact, we're not waiting for any BOS or CHoCH on the H1 or M15 and then waiting for the H1 FVG to be tapped back into many hours later, but actually going along immediately with the 1H imbalance and entering on LTF at the nearest FVG.