A question, mainly because I am unsure really what the answer is but have been thinking about it the last couple of days.
Let's start with the widely accepted notion of applying a fixed 2% risk to any single trade as a reasonable start to money management (appreciate it runs deeper than that).
Now let's I simulatenously open a trade on USD/CHF, USD/CAD and EUR/USD, long the first two and short the last. I risk 2% on each position. In my opinion I think am risking 6% of my equity on the USD which in some ways you could view as a single trade ?
So if something happens in the US and changes the direction of all three pairs, my 6% would be blown. If something happens to the other side of the pairs, then the 2% risk potentially applies.
So the question is, can you really consider those three trades as three seperate trades and therefore worthy of a 2% risk each, or is there another way of managing it.
I expect everybody has their own view on this !
Let's start with the widely accepted notion of applying a fixed 2% risk to any single trade as a reasonable start to money management (appreciate it runs deeper than that).
Now let's I simulatenously open a trade on USD/CHF, USD/CAD and EUR/USD, long the first two and short the last. I risk 2% on each position. In my opinion I think am risking 6% of my equity on the USD which in some ways you could view as a single trade ?
So if something happens in the US and changes the direction of all three pairs, my 6% would be blown. If something happens to the other side of the pairs, then the 2% risk potentially applies.
So the question is, can you really consider those three trades as three seperate trades and therefore worthy of a 2% risk each, or is there another way of managing it.
I expect everybody has their own view on this !