Hey guys, I know this has been discussed long before. But in light of SNB's intervention in 6 Sep 11 and now the recent volatility because of the changeover in SNB's leadership, do you mind discussing this topic a little more with me?
So classically, we always assume that EUR/USD goes up, USD/CHF goes down. The inverse relationship is strong. Hence, in this case, Eur strengthens, dollar weakens and CHF strengthens. Hence, Eur and Chf is going in the same direction and their "price ratio" aka Eur/Chf remains fairly stable.
1) First question, have we confused correlation with causality? To be more specific, the strong correlation btwn EUR/USD and USD/CHF does naturally serve as a strong proxy to the price action of Eur/Chf. But, using this "correlation" as the main factor in our analysis of Eur/Chf might be a bit presumptious?
The reason why this becomes increasingly important is becasue of the well known 1.2000 peg that seems to have made markets less free, and a bit "unnatural" This leads to my second question,
2) Is there a need to change our paradigm and look at things a little differently. For example, we might like to think of price action of Eur/Usd and Eur/ Chf as those that influence Usd/Chf, instead of the classic relationship as mentioned earlier. Hence, although we still assume the same correlation, the causality chain becomes different.
Please tell me what you think. Appreciate it loads. Thanks!
So classically, we always assume that EUR/USD goes up, USD/CHF goes down. The inverse relationship is strong. Hence, in this case, Eur strengthens, dollar weakens and CHF strengthens. Hence, Eur and Chf is going in the same direction and their "price ratio" aka Eur/Chf remains fairly stable.
1) First question, have we confused correlation with causality? To be more specific, the strong correlation btwn EUR/USD and USD/CHF does naturally serve as a strong proxy to the price action of Eur/Chf. But, using this "correlation" as the main factor in our analysis of Eur/Chf might be a bit presumptious?
The reason why this becomes increasingly important is becasue of the well known 1.2000 peg that seems to have made markets less free, and a bit "unnatural" This leads to my second question,
2) Is there a need to change our paradigm and look at things a little differently. For example, we might like to think of price action of Eur/Usd and Eur/ Chf as those that influence Usd/Chf, instead of the classic relationship as mentioned earlier. Hence, although we still assume the same correlation, the causality chain becomes different.
Please tell me what you think. Appreciate it loads. Thanks!