I've been thinking about something and would like to check my logic with the many here who have more knowledge and experience than myself.
In markets such as forex and direct equities, taking a position in the market (as opposed to in a derivative market such as that of a spread betting company), has an effect on that market, however small. It is partly as a consequence of this interaction, that things such as support and resistance levels arise.
Indices on the other hand, must follow the underlying equities, which are not affected by traders taking a position, unless the market maker hedges the position in the underlying shares. It seems to me then, that the behaviour of indices would be far less predictable throught the reading of market movements than that of instruments in which direct positions are taken.
Does this seem reasonable, or am I missing something?
In markets such as forex and direct equities, taking a position in the market (as opposed to in a derivative market such as that of a spread betting company), has an effect on that market, however small. It is partly as a consequence of this interaction, that things such as support and resistance levels arise.
Indices on the other hand, must follow the underlying equities, which are not affected by traders taking a position, unless the market maker hedges the position in the underlying shares. It seems to me then, that the behaviour of indices would be far less predictable throught the reading of market movements than that of instruments in which direct positions are taken.
Does this seem reasonable, or am I missing something?