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- knukk replied Apr 30, 2011
It's related to the pip value (PV) Say you are trading the GBPUSD. And you buy one standard lot of the pair @ 1.5000. Then your PV in USD is 0.0001/1.5000*1*100 000*1.5000 = 10 USD. Given that EURGBP = 1/1.125, then your PV in EUR is ...
- knukk replied Mar 18, 2011
As Intu noted, your test results say explicitly that you have losing trades.
- knukk replied Sep 18, 2010
mikkom and others: what's your experience from going live with systems that looked promising from testing?
- knukk replied Aug 14, 2010
Question 1 (cyan): For me to consider a .00 line as an S/R I require that the price has been very close to the line or even touched it and been slightly through and then gone back. It's not enough for me that price has been there with the ...
- knukk replied Aug 13, 2010
Thank you for your answer. I'm afraid I might have been too unclear in stating my questions. The X's are just the liquidation points at which all positions are closed and have nothing to do with my questions. My questions are asked with a colored ...
- knukk replied Aug 12, 2010
Here's another H4 take with different market condition than that above: Normalized pips roughly adjusted for slippage, spreads, etc: 840. I also added two questions with illustrations in the chart for you to answer.
- knukk replied Aug 12, 2010
Here's another take on the H4 TF with .00 entries: The rules are the same as before: We enter 2 positions per new breakthrough, both with 100 pips SL and one with 100 pips TP and let the other position flow. When the other position reaches 100+ pips ...
- knukk replied Aug 10, 2010
This is an eye opener.
- knukk replied Aug 9, 2010
Thank you
- knukk replied Aug 8, 2010
Yup. One just has to remember the relationship: Stop Loss * Pip Value = Risked Amount. Pip Value is a function of lot size. If you want to risk the same amount, but need to adjust for higher stop loss, then your pip value (and therefore lot size) ...
- knukk replied Aug 8, 2010
My intuitive take on this is that we have to assume how prices are distributed. Given a distribution we have a characteristic function. Then we can use a cumulative distribution function and a probability density function to represent probabilities ...
- knukk replied Aug 8, 2010
Just Do It, yes, just do it
- knukk replied Aug 7, 2010
Explaining "normalized pips" I used the phrase "normalized pips" in my previous post and would like to elaborate on its meaning for those who may be unsure of it. Assume that two traders net the same amount of pips. In order to know who had the ...
- knukk replied Aug 7, 2010
This is my intuitive take on .00 entries on the H4 chart: First I recognize a .00 first time resistance (FTR) or first time support (FTS) by that price closes right above, on or below. If it does so in a range it is an FTR and also a range ...
- knukk replied Aug 7, 2010
This is an awesome thread. Not only thanks to pipEASY, but to those who came with interesting questions and input. I hope pipEASY leaving teaches someone a lesson. If anyone makes it about the last post he responded to, they are missing the big ...
- knukk replied Jul 30, 2010
You can get 5 sec charts from Oanda: url
- knukk replied Jul 28, 2010
I was just writing "I'm still in, floating a few pips above." when my 0SL was hit. So I'm out too. There was a lot of bouncing forth and back:
- knukk replied Jul 28, 2010
It's so relaxing with the 0SL
- knukk replied Jul 28, 2010
Entry @ 1.30182 on the London opening. Currently at 20 pips in the plus.