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- fierceman replied Jul 12, 2012
From what I can see, you are more or less taking USD out of the equation and trading GBP/CAD.
- fierceman replied May 20, 2012
There are differences of course, if you want to get into details. My point was that MM will not make a negative expectancy system into a positive one. Roulette is just a simple, clear example of the futility of such thinking. Tell that to the people ...
- fierceman replied May 20, 2012
Correct. A positive expectancy system can still destroy your account if you don't use appropriate MM. Even "proper MM" applied to a positive expectancy system can ruin you, but at that point you can at least say it was just bad luck . Technically ...
- fierceman replied May 15, 2012
A simpler solution would be dumping MT4 .
- fierceman replied May 15, 2012
I would say that it depends on how much open interest there is at that point. In an illiquid market, your order(s) will move the market more than in a liquid market. You can get partial fills up until there are no more limit orders left within your ...
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
Hey I read your examples and agreed. I was already on your side though...
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
When you close one side of the hedge, that's another trade, so again it's either a +1 or a -1 (depending on which side you close). So, let's say you have a perfect hedge +1, -1. At this point you are flat (your net position is 0 and you don't care ...
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
No one said you can't make money on both sides of the "hedge". What I am saying is that I can replicate the exact series of trades without "hedging", and actually end up a few pips better off because I pay less spread and possibly less overnight ...
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
Precisely.
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
I can confirm that Currenex is the same. So we have 2 professional level platforms that do not allow hedging vs. MT4. Hmmmm. The clients and designers of Currenex probably couldn't solve a grade 2 math problem .
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
That is a very clear and correct explanation.
- fierceman replied May 12, 2012
Bob, I have a degree in physics. In physics, there is A LOT of very complex math. There is a lot of linear algebra, and even more differential equations. While the math we do is not quite as rigorous as what pure mathematicians do, for you to imply ...
- fierceman replied May 10, 2012
That pretty much sums it up for the gazillionth time. Someone said they studied mathematics at university, and asked for a mathematical proof: When you "hedge", you have one positive (long) position, and one equal but negative (short) position in ...
- fierceman replied May 9, 2012
People see leprechauns too. If you want to be flat, then don't have two offsetting trades on - just be flat. Tomorrow or next week, whenever you want to take a chance, then open a position. It's really that simple. You can be profitable when ...
- fierceman replied May 6, 2012
Whether it is negligible or not depends. In any case, I don't see why someone would want to incur even a negligible cost in return for absolutely nothing. No. This type of hedging only controls your losses insofar as it eliminates (or reduces) your ...
- fierceman replied May 6, 2012
Yes, that is correct. However, if you use EUR to buy USD, and then use USD to buy EUR, you have no market exposure - your account equity doesn't change regardless of where price moves (except your account is actually leaking due to overnight ...
- fierceman replied May 6, 2012
I'm sorry, but there is not a single fact that you got correct there. I thought we already had a discussion about this in another thread...
- fierceman replied May 5, 2012
Hedging again... I love this topic. "Hedging" does not help you, it only hurts you. You will make more money (or lose less) the moment you wean yourself off the "hedging" tit. This is a mathematical fact. The type of hedging that is done by ...
- fierceman replied Apr 14, 2012
Fair enough. Maybe now we can give the OP his thread back .
- fierceman replied Apr 14, 2012
Unfortunately no... You would have to take into consideration the crosses between nzd, usd, cad, chf and jpy. What the arbitrage example we have been doing does is this: Say we have EUR/USD = 1.2000 USD/JPY = 100.00 EUR/JPY = 119.00 Theoretically, ...